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proposition: The Bible teaches that all divorce is null and void in the eyes of God.
 

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Divorcee Remarriage?: 1Cor 7:28

 

1Cor. 7:25-28 Does Not Support Remarriage or Modern Divorce – Proof:

 

A selection of chatter from various sources which defines the dispute:

 

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ApologetciJedi #7

 

Quote:

Originally Posted by bob_crawford


To answer to your proof text: 1 Corinthians – I answer that, in context, 1 Corinthians chapter 7 is speaking about cohabitation.



It's speaking about "untying" or "loosing" (v27) which is the same word in the Greek used for divorce.

 

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Bob_Crawford post #9:

 
...Going on, verse 27 states: “Art thou bound unto a wife? seek not to be loosed. Art thou loosed from a wife? seek not a wife.” (KJV)

So if the Greek word for ‘loosed’ is the same as the Greek word used for divorce, this text would say (substituting words) ‘Art thou married unto a wife? seek not to be divorced. Art thou divorced from a wife? seek not a wife.’

How can that be used to support the idea that divorce is allowed and blessed in the Bible? It would appear to me that it supports my position.

 

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ApologeticJedi post#11:

 

You then gave a very accurate rendering of verse 27…“Art thou married unto a wife? seek not to be divorced. Art thou divorced from a wife? seek not a wife.” Absolutely one should not go about seeking for a wife, or for a divorce, but notice the next passage!!!


28 But if you marry, you have not sinned…


Don’t seek a divorce and don’t seek a wife .. but if you end up with one, you have not sinned You then gave a very accurate rendering of verse 27…“Art thou married unto a wife? seek not to be divorced. Art thou divorced from a wife? seek not a wife.” Absolutely one should not go about seeking for a wife, or for a divorce, butnotice the next passage!!!


28 But if you marry, you have not sinned…


Don’t seek a divorce and don’t seek a wife .. but if you end up with one, you have not sinned

 

 

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Stark, Ray, ‘May I Divorce and Remarry?’ http://mgrcentral.com/a/Top/Society/Relationships/Divorce/Christian/55307/May+I+Divorce+and+Remarry%3f.html

 

 

PAUL ON REMARRIAGE

In vs 27 Paul finally gets around to the subject of remarriage after covering the various marriage and divorce scenarios in the church. His definitive command to every believer is "If you are married, dont look for a divorce. If you are divorced, it would be better to remain single but if you remarry you have not sinned."

1 Cor 7:27 Art thou bound unto a wife? seek not to be loosed. Art thou loosed from a wife? seek not a wife.
28 But and if thou marry, thou hast not sinned; and if a virgin marry, she hath not sinned. Nevertheless such shall have trouble in the flesh: but I spare you.

NOTE: Divorce is an awful thing, and is to be avoided at all cost. It is not however, the unforgivable sin. Nor does divorce and remarriage constitute ongoing adultery. The Blood of Christ cleanses from ALL sin and ALL unrighteousness.

 

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bob_crawford counters with the following article:

 

 

 

PROPOSITION: 1Corinthians 7:25-28 is addressed to “virgins” so cannot be used to support, bless or condone remarriage or, by implication, ‘modern divorce’ with its belief in the termination of marriage and right to remarry.

 

 

abstract

 

The currently accepted interpretation of 1Cor 7:25-28 which takes this passage to support the practice of ‘remarriage’ ought not to be considered a correct interpretation because this section of First Corinthians is generally addressed to “virgins” and verse 27 is specifically addressed to the case of the ‘virgin man’ and the second sentence of verse 28 is specifically addressed to the case of a virgin woman. The  modern word ‘remarriage’ means a second marriage but virgins have yet to be married for the first time. While speaking to and about ‘virgins’, one cannot conclude that 1 Cor. 7:27,28 is speaking about non-virgins (divorcees) and their ability to be remarried or divorced.

-end of abstract-

 

I this article I will attempt to prove that 1 Cor.7:25-28 does not support remarriage or ‘modern divorce’ but is consistent with the interpretation that all remarriage and ‘modern divorce’ is null and void in the eyes of  GOD.

 

First Corinthians, chapter seven is a letter to the church in which Paul is addressing certain questions. Verse one states: “Now concerning the things whereof ye wrote to me:…” The chapter is divided into sections, each addressed to a specific group of persons and, addressing the specific problems of each group. For example: v.2-7 was written to married couples (implied), v.8-9 “I say therefore to the unmarried and widows…”, v.10-11, “And unto the married…”, v12. “But to the rest speak I…”, v.25-28, “Now concerning virgins…”, v29- to the “brethren...”.

 

The verse currently used to justify remarriage is verse 27 and the first sentence of verse 28:

 

“Art thou bound unto a wife? seek not to be loosed. Art thou loosed from a wife? seek not a wife. But and if thou marry, thou hast not sinned:…” KJV.

 

It should be noted that Paul is speaking about the case of a virgin man: v. 25, “Now concerning virgins…” ,v.26: “…I say that it is good for a man so to be.” (i.e. a virgin – the man to be a virgin). So the whole passage is speaking, generally to virgins, and verse 27 and 28 is speaking specifically about a virgin man. The second sentence of verse 28 speaks about a virgin woman.

 

Because the subject of verse 27 and 28 are a virgin man and virgin woman, it does not make logical sense to conclude that divorcees can divorce and remarry because divorcees are not virgins, so this text is not talking about modern divorcees.

 

It is agreed (among the persons quoted at the beginning of this article) that the Greek word for ‘loose’ is the same word translated elsewhere as ‘divorce’ which lead to my generally accepted paraphrased version:

 

 Art thou [married] unto a wife? seek not to be [divorced]. Art thou [divorced] from a wife? seek not a wife. But and if you marry, you have not sinned; and if a virgin marry, she hath not sinned.

 

Since this section is addressed to virgins (v.25) and is addressing the issues of virgins, how are we to interpret this text?

 

 

 Matthew 1:19. Then Joseph her husband--Compare Mt 1:20, "Mary, thy wife." Betrothal was, in Jewish law, valid marriage. In giving Mary up, therefore, Joseph had to take legal steps to effect the separation.

Robert Jamieson, A. R. Fausset and David Brown
Commentary Critical and Explanatory on the Whole Bible (1871) http://www.ccel.org/j/jfb/jfb/JFB40.htm#Chapter1

 

Meanings of word have changed over time. For example, the Bible does not contain the modern word ‘remarriage’. There is only one word in the Bible, ‘marriage’ so we have to decide whether the text means ,’marriage’ or ‘remarriage’ from context. In the same way, out modern ideas of ‘engagement to be married’ is a modern idea. In the Bible, when a person is ‘betrothed’ , they are considered to be a ‘spouse’, so 1 Corinthians 7:27 can be seen to apply to virgins. In Bible times, a person who broke off an engagement, would be equivalent to our ‘divorcee’ and it would, therefore, be possible to have a ‘virgin divorcee’. In modern times, a virgin divorcee would be an impossibility.

 

Since 1 Cor. 7:25-28 addresses virgins, this text, in modern language, must be talking about engagement. It does not make logical sense to claim that this text is talking about remarriage because virgins are yet to be married. Verse 25 is speaking to ‘virgins’ and verse 28 is speaking about virgins, so, keeping with the flow of the topic, verse 27 must be speaking about virgins too. It does not make logical sense to say that Paul suddenly starts talking about non-virgins (i.e. divorcees) right in the middle of a section addressed to virgins.

 

 The word ‘loosed’, when applied to ‘virgins’ must be interpreted to mean ‘breaking of an engagement’ as illustrated in the case of Joseph thinking about breaking off his engagement to ‘his wife Mary’. My opposition claims that the word ‘loosed’ refers to ‘modern divorce’ but it can just as well be referring to the virgin man ‘divorcing’ his virgin betrothed ‘wife’, or, in modern language, the breaking of an engagement. This last explanation is more in keeping with the marriage practices and traditions of Bible times.

 

We can paraphrase 1 Cor 7:27,28 thus:

 

Are you engaged?  Seek not to break off the engagement. Is your engagement broken off? Seek not another engagement. But if you [as a virgin man] marry, you have not sinned. And if a virgin marry, she has not sinned.

 

In conclusion, 1 Cor 7:25-28 must be interpreted to be speaking about, in modern language, the breaking off of an engagement to be married because:

 

1. the whole passage is, generally, speaking to virgins and their issues,

2. verse 27 is specifically addressed to the case of the virgin man,

3. the word ‘thou’ in verse 27 is ‘the virgin man’, the subject,

4. modern divorcees are not virgins,

5. those who remarry in modern times are not virgins,

6. the word ‘loosed’ is verse 27 cannot refer to the modern divorcee because the modern divorcee is not a virgin and this sentence is speaking to the virgin man,

7. verse 28 specifically mentions the virgin woman marrying, and this cannot refer to a modern remarriage because such a remarriage would not involve virgins.

- the end - 

so says,

 

Bob Crawford

22, Feb, 2007

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